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Old 12-10-2002, 11:51 PM   #1 (permalink)
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texas hold 'em poker rules, anyone?

hey guys,

I was wondering, does anyone know how to play texas hold 'em poker?

My main question is that if the table is showing a straight (3,4,5,6,7), and player A has an A,Q and player B has 4,J , who would win? Does player A win b/c he has the highest card beyond the straight or does player B win b/c he can build 2 straights or b/c he can build a pair of 4's?

A second scenario would be if the table is showing a pair of 2s and a pair of 10s and a 7. Player A has a 10,8 and Player B has a 10,8. In this scenario both players have a full house, so, how do you determine who wins? By the suit of the 10s in their hand, or another way?

If no one knows the answer, does anyone know of any websites that have good rule clarifications for Texas Hold 'em?

Thanks for reading.


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Old 12-10-2002, 11:53 PM   #2 (permalink)
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This Might help ya...
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Old 12-11-2002, 12:25 AM   #3 (permalink)
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If all players opted to use the 5 table cards as their hand and nobody had a better hand, then wouldn't that be a push? That's what I'd say.
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Old 12-11-2002, 05:23 AM   #4 (permalink)
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thx for the response guys, I did some searching on the internet and found the answer. I appreciate it!


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Old 12-11-2002, 06:43 AM   #5 (permalink)
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So what's the answer?
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Old 12-11-2002, 10:03 AM   #6 (permalink)
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Actually, that's exactly the same as the 2-card hold'em on Yahoo. At least as far as I can tell from that site anyway.

In the first senario it's a tie, because the comparison of hands in poker only goes as far as the five cards that form the poker hand. None of the hole or pocket cards comes into play, as the straight is 5 cards and thus the whole poker hand.

In the second senario, the hands are identical. Doesn't take much explanation there.

But I would've thought the ranking of hands is the same in all 1,001 variations of poker. Am I wrong??
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Old 12-11-2002, 04:17 PM   #7 (permalink)
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well for scenario one, outpatient and endobiotic chaos are correct. you can't use suit to determine a clear winner, so they both split the pot. However, if one of the players had an 8, they would be the winner b/c they would be able to create a larger straight (4,5,6,7,8).

for scenario two, you would split the pot again, b/c you don't look at suits when comparing full houses. at first, I though perhaps you would compare the suits of the 10s in the private hands (ie spades>hearts>clubs>diamonds, but this is not the case. Again, you split the pot.

And in both cases you only use 5 cards to build your hand. (which was also another point of debate before we read the poker FAQ).


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Old 12-11-2002, 04:41 PM   #8 (permalink)
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Heh. Nope, suit has no value in poker.
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Old 12-11-2002, 08:21 PM   #9 (permalink)
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i don't play poker so can't comment. But if you were talking bridge.......
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